CW asks, "Why are hairs called locks?"

Her question brings to mind Pope's The Rape of the Lock, which in turn raises further questions:

When and how did the word 'rape' lose the relatively innocent sense in which Pope uses it, and acquire the nasty meaning it has today? I can hardly imagine that the word would, at any time, have both senses.

And in Pope's time, how was that modern nasty meaning spoken of, if not by the word 'rape'?

Great question. "Rape" means to "make haste." How that became a sexual term is beyond me.

The change was early on, though, according to the OED. It has "rape" meaning "The act of carrying away a person, esp. a woman, by force." in 1400, and by 1481, "Violation or ravishing of a woman." Here is the quotation: "CAXTON Reynard (Arb.) 95 There rauysschyd he and forcyd my wyf..See my lorde thys fowle mater, this is murdre rape and Treson." Shakespeare and Milton followed with that use of "rape."

Then there is rape, the plant. Different etymology, I presume.

Oh, Shufitz, don't forget the Rape of Lucretia, and the Rape of The Sabine Women. And the term is used as a synonym for plundering of looting.

quote:

Originally posted by Kalleh:
Great question. "Rape" means to "make haste." How that became a sexual term is beyond me.

Probably because rapists do "make haste".

LOL, this reminds me of my friend who studied English Lit at uni, but hadn't done the reading for her seminar one day...

she walked in and just loudly said,
"So, has anyone read this rape of the pope then?"

She knew what she meant!