We sometimes still hear the expression, "the wherefores and the whys" of something, but "wherefore" isn't used today in any other way that I'm aware of. Shakespeare used both terms in Lear, in Edmund's words, "Why bastard, wherefore base," and wherefore alone in Romeo and Juliet in the oft misunderstood, "Wherefore art thou Romeo?"
What's the distinction between the two words in Lear?

Interesting question, Asa. I have heard the phrase "wherefores and whys," but I couldn't find it used that way in the online OED at all. In fact, the latest use of "wherefore" that they wrote about was from 1913 (1200 being the earliest use), with: 1913 Act 3 & 4 Geo. V c. 20 §118 (1)(d) All sums (not exceeding..one hundred pounds) due in respect of compensation under the Workmen's Compensation Act, 1906, the liability wherefor accrued before the said date. That obviously was written by a lawyer, and I imagine you do see "wherefores" in legal documents. Shu????

dictionary.com has a secondary meaning of wherefore as "therefore". I take the line to mean, "Why does being a bastard make me base?"

This topic makes me realize I haven't read King Lear since I was 14, and that I probably should do so again, as I recall somewhat enjoying it.

There is a slight difference between 'wherefor' and 'wherefore'. In English the same words are, in general, used as both question words and relative pronouns: Where is it? The place where it is. Who did it? The person who did it.

The 'where'+preposition compounds are outdated equivalents of preposition + 'which/what', and can like other wh-words be used in both situations:

Wherein is it? The place wherein it is.

However 'wherefor(a)' and its answer 'therefor(e)' developed a spelling distinction:

Wherefore was it done? The reason wherefor it was done. Therefore I paid for it. The money I paid therefor.

This, at least, is the modern spelling distinction; I don't suppose it was settled in Shakespeare's day.

At first I thought I'd never heard the phrase before, until I realised that I've only ever heard it the other way round: 'the whys and wherefores' (no second 'the' either). I wonder if this is another UK/US difference or maybe just a matter of individual preference.

I wonder if there's not really meant to be that much of a difference when the two words are used in this way (I've never differentiated between them either), and it's just a linguistic tool to cement the phrase without a repetition of the same word, which is seldom that pleasing to the eye or ear.

Incidentally, the first time I learnt about the true meaning of 'Wherefore art thou Romeo?' was as a child when I was reading a 'Peanuts' comic (I believe it was one of Linus's musings). Who says cartoons can't be educational?!

I've only heard it the way Cat suggests: the whys and the wherefores . . .

and Cat? I'd say Peanuts is probably one of the most profound, education comic strips out there. Charles Schultz was a truly great man.

Cat, I hear it both ways, so I doubt it's got anything to do with a British/US difference. It's not common nowadays whichever way one says it, being used only by those of us of a "certian age," it seems.

quote:

There is a slight difference between 'wherefor' and 'wherefore'

Wow, I had no idea! I thought it was just 2 ways of spelling it.

I have only heard it Cat's way, too.