Anyone know where the form Arian came from. Apparently it came into use as a designation for the Indo-Europeans, not the Indo-Iranians from what I understand. I believe Arya was used for the Indo-Iranians. I see several sources site about the form Arian appeared as early as 1839 but nothing about where. Also the sites say that this it was more philologically correct, but of what form? The Indic speakers never called themselves Arian, and the Indo-Europeans never called themselves Arian either until 1839 so what would it have been a philologically correct from of? What gives?

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