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My original thread has gotten off track, so I want to revert to the original question. Is Chaucer readable to a modern eye, once you modernize his spelling? If so, it would indicate that although spelling has changed, our diction, syntax and grammar haven't changed much in the 600 years since Chaucer's day (expect, of course, for growth in the vocabulary); that very little has been lost over time. | ||
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