Is there any difference between avarice and avariciousness? Or have we simply taken the noun avarice, added the suffix -ious to produce the adjective avaricious, and then added another suffix -ness to get back again to a noun, avariciousness?
Are there many other words that manifest the same process of adding one suffix, and then adding another to get back to where you started?
As Tinman says here, they seem to mean exactly the same thing. I don't understand why you would have two identical words. Synonyms are one thing because they are different words at least. Here, they are just derivations of each other. That seems stupid to me.
There's certainly a difference between signs and signage in the UK.
Signs can be almost any kind of visual representation of information, from gestures to motorway speed restrictions. Signage, though, is the overall policy or system used for signs in a particular situation.
There is another noun derived from the verb, "to sign" which is "a signing". This is usually used in respect of a contractual signing, often of a sporting figure. "Idiotshire United's latest signing, Fred Bloggs"
Richard English
Posts: 8038 | Location: Partridge Green, West Sussex, UK
I agree that "use" and "utilize" identical; in academia whenever I wrote papers with "use" in them, my colleagues would immediately suggest I change it to "utilize."
However, I agree with Richard about "signs" and "signage."
arnie, obviously it could just be that I haven't heard of "burgle." How's about it, fellow Americans?
I've also heard the verb "signing" used in reference to people who speak in American Sign Language.
I've heard the term "burgle" but to be honest I don't recall if it was an American thing or if it was a Brit thing that had leaked over to our side. I tend to read books that have Britishisms.
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